Руководство по летной эксплуатации ВС Boeing 767 (AFM/FCOM): вопросы и ответы
Системы Boeing 767: кондиционирование и герметизация, автоматическое управление, электроснабжение, топливо, гидравлика и двигатели.
Сначала попробуйте ответить самостоятельно, затем раскройте вопрос и сравните ответ с ключом базы. Здесь нет счёта, результаты чтения не меняют прогресс тренировок.
Проверить себя в тренировке →Ответы приведены по тестовой базе MY FREIGHTER с задокументированными исправлениями. Это материал для повторения, а не самостоятельное руководство по эксплуатации. Правовые вопросы включают нормы Узбекистана. Об источнике. Ссылки на полный PDF требуют интернета.
(A) Aircraft General
1Landing lights consist of:
2During a turn the wing radius and even the tail radius extend far beyond the radius of the aircraft nose.
3Which mask lever, when squeezed applies oxygen flow to inflate the harness?
4What is the maximum operating altitude (service ceiling) of the Boeing 767?
5What is the maximum allowable runway slope for takeoff and landing?
6The 767-300 aircraft is long
7When will the Wing Landing light intensity be at full bright?
8The landing lights consist of the left, right, and nose gear landing lights. The left and right landing lights are located in the left and right wing root and are optimized for flare and ground roll.
9Where are white anti–collision strobe lights located?
10The red anti–collision lights are strobe lights located
11Logo lights are located on the stabilizer to illuminate the logo on the vertical tail surface.
12The Emergency/Test selector can be pushed to deliver pressure to the mask to test the mask. Rotation of this selector activates the ______mode to provide oxygen under pressure.
13The top of the Vertical Stabilizer stands 52' 0" (15.85 meters) from the ground.
14What is the maximum flight altitude for use of APU bleed air?
15Two runway turnoff lights are located in the left and right wing root.
16Indicator Light brightness can be set to DIM or BRT with the indicator lights selector.
17At what cabin altitude should the Oxygen PSU doors open?
18The span of the Horizontal Stabilizer is .
19Which switch will cause the cockpit dome lights to go to full bright?
20What is the overall length of the 767-300?
(B) Air conditioning/Pressurization/Ventilation
1Positive pressure relief valves provide airplane over-pressurization protection and negative pressure relief doors guard against negative pressurization.
2When entering the cruise mode, the system compares the_______ and selects the higher of these two for the cruise cabin altitude.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. selected landing altitude and the scheduled cabin altitude
3If the aircraft altitude changes more than 500 feet, the pressurization system re-enters the climb mode or descent mode.
4The outflow valve actuator may be operated through ______ .
5Up to 17,000 feet, APU bleed air may be used for pressurization instead of engine bleed air.
6When on the ground with electrical power on the aircraft, the Left Recirculation Fan operates continuously to ensure adequate equipment cooling.
7The temperature controllers allow temperature selections ranging from C (cool, i.e., 18 degrees C / 65 degrees F) to W (warm, i.e. 30 degrees C / 85 degrees F).
8Moving a single Temperature selector to OFF will turn off the trim air for the zone and the associated INOP light will come on.
9With STBY selected, the OVHT light is inhibited for 5 minutes.
10A simultaneous switch indication of ON and INOP and an EICAS recirculation fan message indicates a failure of the respective fan.
11There is no display for the selected Flight Deck temperature, only a trim air valve position indicator.
12In the event of cargo overheat above 90°F (32°C) in any cargo compartment, the OVHT light illuminates in the Cargo Heat switch. The associated Cargo Heat Shutoff Valve automatically closes and an EICAS message for the associated compartment of CARGO OVHT is displayed.
13The cargo heat overheat condition and associated indications:
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. will automatically reset
Буквы вариантов приведены к A, B, C… по порядку; исходные буквы сохранены отдельно.
Источник: PDF, стр. 288 ↗14With VENT selected, a fan comes on to circulate cabin air through the bulk compartment and to raise the temperature to a minimum of 65 degrees F (18 degrees C).
15Cargo heat is provided to the Aft and Bulk cargo compartments from the Pneumatic duct.
16Detection of smoke will illuminate the.
17A single INOP light indicates that:
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. there is a malfunction affecting that compartments temperature control system.
18The INOP light illuminates when.
19The temperature controller signals the pack temperature controllers to produce conditioned air which satisfies the compartment requiring the ________.
20The foot heaters are available only in flight.
21With a pack selector in AUTO, the pack is automatically controlled to provide the output temperature according to the cabin section/zone that is selected for the __________.
22For equipment cooling on the ground, before engine start and with temperatures below 45°F (7°C), the equipment cooling system recirculates inside air for cooling.
23The VALVE light and EICAS message of FWD EQPT VAL is displayed when any supply or exhaust valve is not in the ______ .
24The PACK OFF light indicates that the pack valve is closed. The pack valve could be closed because:
25For equipment cooling in flight, the inboard supply valve and overboard exhaust valves are closed, the skin heat exchanger valve is open, and only the _____ operates.
26Cargo heat for the forward cargo compartment is provided from the:
(C) Auto Flight
1The A/T Speed (SPD) mode, when pressed, changes the thrust reference from TO to CLB if selected above 400 feet RA.
2Which of the following AFDS modes are normally armed before becoming active?
3Which MCP button(s) are normally pressed at 400 after takeoff?
4Should you follow the F/D pitch bar at liftoff?
5Below __________ RA the Autoland Status Annunciator (ASA) opens to indicate the status of the autopilots to make a Category III approach with automatic landing and rollout. The annunciation is either LAND3 or LAND2.
6At __________ Rollout engages.
7The LAND 2 mode is a fail ___________ mode.
8During the autoland rollout mode operation. Rollout guidance continues to full stop or until A/Ps are disengaged.
9Can the pilot manually adjust the throttles without causing the A/T to disengage?
10Active FMA modes are displayed in large green letters in the top part of the annunciator windows. Armed FMA modes are indicated __________________________ underneath the green annunciations.
11Above 80 knots on the takeoff roll, the FMA A/T window should display ________.
12Below 200 feet radio altitude the ASA display cannot change except to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition.
13The MCP selected altitude is referenced to the Captains barometric altimeter setting for which A/P operation?
14When FLCH is engaged, how does the AFDS know whether to climb or descend?
15When GA is engaged, the AFDS controls pitch and roll while the A/T _________________.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. increases thrust to establish a 2,000 foot per minute climb
16When the localizer is captured, the AFDS will command up to __________________ regardless of the MCP bank angle selector.
17In some aircraft the localizer must be captured before glideslope capture can occur.
18If no active speed mode is displayed when FLCH is selected, __________________________.
19What will the A/T system do when the thrust reversers are selected after landing?
20What is a good rotation rate for takeoff?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. Approximately 2 degrees per second, but no faster than 3 degrees per second.
21How long does the GA mode remain armed during an approach?
22During the autoland rollout mode operation. The A/Ps maintain the localizer centerline through rudder control and nose wheel steering.
23Normally the autopilot is disengaged through the control wheel Autopilot Disengage Switch. The Autopilot Disengage Bar can also be used to disengage the autopilot or autopilots.
24During the takeoff roll, the F/D pitch bar commands a fixed attitude of __________________.
25Regardless of how the A/P disconnects, the red A/P DISC light illuminates along with an EICAS warning message of AUTOPILOT DISC and the sound of the siren.
26The selection of ____ cancels THR HOLD and automatically adjusts the throttles to maintain climb thrust.
27The LAND 3 mode is a fail ___________ mode.
28During the autoland rollout mode operation. The F/D roll command bar provides directional steering information.
29All A/P disconnect warnings can be deactivated by pushing the control wheel autopilot disconnect switch a second time.
30Before the autoflight system will climb using FLCH, _______________________________ and then the desired AFDS pitch change has to be made.
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. a higher altitude has to be set in the Altitude Window
31V/S mode is inhibited after glideslope capture when the APP mode is engaged.
32With the HDG SEL mode engaged, the airplane will turn _____________________________ and the heading marker, the magenta-colored rectangular box with dashed line, moves accordingly.
33Do the A/T throttles automatically disconnect during the autoland rollout?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. No, they remain in IDLE until thrust reverse selection.
34At __________ the autopilots start to flare the airplane and FLARE replaces G/S as the active mode.
35The FLCH mode, when pressed, changes the thrust reference from TO to CLB if selected above 400 feet RA.
36How is the A/T mode selected for T/O?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. The A/T is engaged at 1.1 EPR (70 N1) by pressing the MCP EPR (N1) switch.
37In most of the flight regime the A/P operates only the ailerons and the elevators.
38After liftoff, the F/D pitch bar initially moves to an attitude of __________________.
39Can the A/T be operated independently of the flight director and the autopilot?
40FLCH will not necessarily demand full climb power, if the altitude change is small.
41How many FCCs are normally used for A/P operations during an automatic approach, landing and rollout, as well as the initial phase of a go-around?
42How many FCCs are normally used for A/P operations during climb, cruise and descent?
43Is it possible to select the Vertical Speed mode and select a climb or descent when you are level at the MCP altitude?
44During the takeoff roll, EPR appears in both FMA A/T windows until what speed?
45The VNAV mode, when pressed, changes the thrust reference from TO to CLB if selected above 400 feet RA.
46How do you determine which AFDS mode is engaged?
47If the A/T ARM switch is moved to OFF, ________________________________________.
48The Vertical Speed mode will command the aircraft to leave the current altitude when a new altitude has not been selected.
49What is a good way to monitor the operation of the Center FCC in flight?
50Which FMA is correct before takeoff?
51When VNAV is engaged, which device operates the A/T in response to FMC calculations?
52At __________ the autothrottle starts retarding the thrust levers to idle and IDLE replaces SPD as the active mode.
53The GA mode is armed when the _____________________ or the G/S is captured.
54When VNAV is not engaged, which device operates the A/T in response to MCP selections?
55Autopilot engagement requires _____________________________ and pushing the associated MCP Autopilot Engage Switch.
56When FLCH is engaged, SPD appears in which FMA window?
57When does the FMA indicate an armed FLARE and ROLLOUT in the pitch and roll windows?
58The autopilot servos operate the flight controls through the ______________________ hydraulic systems.
59Flight director failure in pitch or roll causes the respective command bar to disappear
(D) Communication
1Where is the control panel located for VHF #3?
2With the switch in NORM, the Flight Recorder is powered on the ground when ____________.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. electrical power is available and either engine is running
3What is the purpose of the TRANSFER switch on the VHF Comm. Radio Control Panels?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. To select which of the displayed frequencies is active.
4The Marker Beacon receiver is part of the _____ VOR receiver.
5Where is the Push To Talk switch for a pilot to transmit over a VHF radio?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. The hand held mike, the Audio Selector Panel, or the Control Wheel Rocker switch.
6There are ____ Interphone Systems?
7The Ground Call switch on the overhead panel is used to:
Ответ по ключу базы- B. Sound a horn in the nose wheel well to alert ground personnel .
8The ACARS is equipped with a printer – to provide the crew a hard copy of received information?
9Which page would you access before the flight?
10The Voice Recorder can be erased only when _____________________________.
11Which ILS display is available when operating on Standby power?
12How does one tune an HF frequency?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. With the desired frequency selected, key the mike until the tone stops.
13Which page allows the crew to Request a Gate Assignment?
14How many ILS receivers are installed and where is their tuning panel(s)?
15Selection of the EHSI mode selector to the MAP mode will put the respective VOR radio in the ______ tune mode.
16Which mode allows the Transponder to provide TCAS Traffic and Resolution Advisories?
17Which mode allows the Transponder to provide only TCAS Traffic Advisories? Note: it is usually selected after an engine failure to inhibit Resolution Advisories.
18Will the Marker Beacon receiver operate on Standby electrical power?
19How does HF communication operate?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. HF signals reflect off the earth’s surface and an ionized layer of the atmosphere to travel long distance.
20When/how is the Voice Recorder powered?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. It is powered whenever normal AC power is on the aircraft.
21On the ground, movement of the Flight Recorder switch to TEST _______________________.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. causes the recorder to operate and should cause the OFF light to go out
(E) Electrical
1Is it possible for the Battery DISCH light to come on even after the HDG is activated?
2The DRIVE light indicates that the particular IDGs ________________________.
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. oil temperature is too high and/or the oil pressure is too low
3With an HDG equipped aircraft, what are the immediate indications of a dual AC bus failure?
Ответ по ключу базы- B. Blank EFIS on the F/O side, blank EICAS and the Standby Engine Indicator is activated. Since the HDG only powers the Captain's flight instrument bus
4The Battery/Standby Power System includes these four buses:
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. Hot Battery Bus, Battery Bus, Standby DC Bus, Standby AC Bus.
5With External power on the aircraft and the APU running, how is APU power applied to the aircraft to replace external power?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. Turn on the APU power to knock the external power off line.
6Which bus normally powers the Center AC bus?
7The APU generator breaker operates automatically when the control switch is __________.
8The left DC bus normally serves as the primary power source of the Center DC bus, _______________________________________.
9Can both the APU generator and external power be applied to the tie bus at the same time?
10What is the normal position of the APU generator switch?
11Before generator electrical power is available, the battery bus can be powered by the _______________ through the battery switch operated battery switch relay.
12During engine start, the DRIVE light extinguishes as the IDG oil pressure builds up followed by the OFF light extinguishing as the engine reaches idle RPM.
13The _________________ normally powers the Captains flight instrument transfer bus and the right main AC bus the First Officers transfer bus.
14What is the normal position and condition of the generator control switches before engine start?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. The generator control switch ON light with its flow bar is in view and the OFF light is illuminated.
15What action or condition activates the HDG to operate?
16In addition to the battery chargers, the ground service bus also powers _________________ and the left main tank forward fuel pump.
17The action to disconnect an IDG is normally only taken in response to an illuminated _____ light in the Generator Drive Disconnect Switch and an EICAS advisory message of L or R GEN DRIVE.
18When a generator crossties from one side of the AC system to the other side, the _______________ are shed.
19During engine start when the engine driven generator is up to speed, it will automatically replace APU power or external power to the associated AC bus.
20The generator drive disconnect switch DRIVE light is extinguished and the generator control switch OFF light remains illuminated before the engine is started.
21The DC bus tie breaker is normally open and closes only in case of failure of the associated T/R or AC bus, and then _________ if both AC bus tie breakers are in AUTO!
22The Battery Bus powers a number of items, some important ones are?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. Engine, APU and Cargo fire detection, DC fuel pump, RAT automatic deployment, and Standby engine indicator.
23During the Standby Power check, the battery DISCH light illuminates. The standby power OFF light should remain out when BAT is selected, since the standby buses should be _________.
24When normal power is on the aircraft, the Ground Service Bus is powered by ________________.
25What is the normal position of the Bus Tie Switches?
26When available External power is selected to ON, the APU and Engine generators are knocked off line.
27If the APU is operating when a failure of an engine generator occurs, the APU generator will NOT automatically take over for the failed engine generator.
28Some items that are powered by the Hot Battery bus are?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. Spar and APU fuel valves, IRS emergency power, RAT manual deployment, Clock time reference.
29Does External power come on automatically when it is plugged into the aircraft?
30With APU, external, or engine-generator power available, the battery charger is the ______________ power source.
31During engine start, the engine-driven generator will automatically replace APU power or external power on its respective AC bus once the engine reaches idle RPM.
32The APU generator OFF light indicates that __________________________________.
33Which bus powers the battery chargers for the main aircraft battery and the APU battery?
34Electrical power from the APU flows through the APU generator breaker to _______________.
35Which bus powers the cargo compartment lights and the cargo door electrical door operating systems?
36What is indicated by the illuminated AVAIL light in the External Power Switch?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. It indicates that the external power generator is producing acceptable AC electrical power.
37Is the Ground Handling Bus powered automatically as soon as acceptable External power is available (AVAIL light on) ?
38With the APU generator switch in ON and the APU running, the APU Generator switch OFF light, in combination with an EICAS advisory message of APU GEN OFF, indicates an APU generator fault.
39On the ground and in flight the APU generator may be used as a substitute for ____________________________________.
40Generator fault protection will cause the generator switch OFF light to illuminate and a corresponding EICAS advisory message of ______________ to be indicated.
41The HDG is driven by _______________________________________________.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. the left hydraulic system or the power transfer unit (PTU)
42The generator drive disconnect switch DRIVE light and the generator control switch OFF light remain illuminated until the engine is started.
43With the APU not running, selecting the APU generator switch to ON, flow bar in view, causes the OFF light to disappear.
44If external power is connected to the AC tie bus when the APU is started, the APU will NOT automatically supply power to the tie bus and will NOT disconnect the external power.
45If the APU is not operating when a failure of an engine generator occurs, the opposite generator will pick up the un-powered AC bus through the crosstie bus.
46The Utility buses are powered by ______________________________.
47When the AC Transfer buses switch their power source to the HDG because of loss of power to both main AC buses, the left AC transfer bus contactor not only maintains power to its bus but also applies power to the Captains flight instrument transfer bus.
48The left and right main AC buses normally power the left and right AC Transfer Buses. The only alternate power source for these AC transfer buses is the ________.
49With a generator control switch in the ON position (flow bar is in view) and the OFF light also illuminated in the generator control switch, the crew knows that __________________________.
50Disconnection of the IDG is irrevocable; the IDGs can only be reset on the ground by Maintenance.
51With external power disconnected and both engine-driven generators not operating. The operating APU generator electrical power is applied to both main AC buses through the bus tie breakers.
52What is the purpose of the HDG?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. It is a non-time limited generator capable of operating essential systems for ETOPS operation.
(F) Fire Protection
1The Fire Warning lights remain illuminated as long as the fire exists.
2Can an engine fire switch be manually unlocked?
3Two sets of ___________________ switches, when activated, actually cause an engine fire indication. The switches are arranged in a dual-loop system.
4Which of the following actions can silence the fire warning bell?
5Where are the external APU Fire Warnings displayed?
6Two different systems are used to detect an engine fire: fire detector loops and _____________.
7Which areas have only Overheat Detection?
8The _______________ supplies electrical power for the fire extinguishing systems.
9Which of the following actions can silence the fire warning bell?
10Which areas have both Fire and Overheat Detection?
11The _______________ supplies electrical power for fire detection and for fire warning.
12Can an engine fire switch be automatically unlocked?
13Is the Fire Warning Bell automatically silenced when a Fire switch is pulled?
14Which areas have Smoke Detection?
15Which areas have only Fire Detection?
16Will the respective engine fuel control switch illuminate when there is a fire detected?
(G) Flight Controls
1A column override system located between the two control columns allows a jammed control column to be overridden by movement of the other column.
2The 767 flap maneuvering speeds allow for a normal 25-degree bank for maneuvering plus an additional safety factor of 15 degrees before buffet onset is encountered.
3The PES makes stabilizer trim available ___ of the normal trim rate and can only be operated by use of the electric trim switches.
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. 1/4
В PDF выделен ответ 1/2, хотя таблица указывает A (1/4); в тренажёре принят A по таблице и дополнительной проверке. Буквы вариантов приведены к A, B, C… по порядку; исходные буквы сохранены отдельно.
Источник: PDF, стр. 308 ↗4Elevator feel force, artificially generated, is supplied by two elevator feel computers that operate with ___________ hydraulic pressure.
5With selection of the flaps 1 position, the remain up and the ___move to the takeoff (or midrange) position.
6The Control Column switches will interrupt ___ trim or ___ trim operation if the control column is moved in a direction opposing the trim motion.
7Flaps ___ and ___ are the normal landing flap positions.
8The 767 flight controls are positioned by hydraulic Power Control Units (PCUs) and _________ manual reversion.
9If the rudder ratio changer is inoperative, the _____ actuator shuts down.
10The speedbrakes will also extend automatically if either thrust reverser lever is raised to the reverser interlock position.
11The Center hydraulic system supplies pressure to all primary flight controls, with the exception of the__________.
12Is there an override mechanism for the elevator control columns?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. Yes – in fact there is even an override mechanism for the elevator panels.
13The Pitch Enhancement System consists of a Power Transfer Unit (motor/pump), that uses _________ hydraulic system pressure and trapped left hydraulic system trim fluid to provide a backup trim system.
14With more than one autopilot engaged such as during approach, the electric trim operation ________________.
15Use of aileron trim is prohibited during autopilot operation.
16Uncommanded stabilizer trim operation will cause the overhead panel ___ light to come on and an EICAS caution message of UNSCHD STAB TRIM to appear along with the aural beeper.
17At least one inertial reference unit must be operational for the yaw dampers to function.
18A rudder ratio changer modifies rudder pedal and rudder trim inputs as a function of airspeed.
19Two red guarded switches, the Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switches, control the hydraulic power to the trim control modules.
20The flaps and slats power drive units are powered by the hydraulic system.
21The spoiler panels are_______________________________.
22yaw dampers operate through the rudder control system to improve yaw control.
23When pushed to ALTN, each Alternate Flap switch_________________.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. disables and depressurizes normal hydraulic control for the respective slats or flaps
24If one or both of the outboard ailerons is unlocked at high speeds when they should be locked the same message and light come on.
25There are modes of stabilizer trim control: electric, automatic, and alternate.
26The light, beeper, and the caution message may appear for . uncommanded stabilizer movement
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. stabilizer moving in direction opposite to elevator input (with A/P engaged)
27Activating both trim switches together on either control wheel sends an electric arming and directional signal to both stabilizer trim control modules. In turn, the trim control modules use hydraulic power to move the stabilizer.
28Stabilizer Trim is normally powered by ____hydraulics, while slats and flaps are normally powered by the center hydraulic system alone.
29Use of Electric Trim during single autopilot operation will cause the autopilot to _______.
30There are hydraulic actuators for each elevator.
31The rudder ratio changer operates through the actuator.
32Except for Alternate Trim operation, uncommanded stabilizer trimming can be stopped by moving either control column in the opposite direction of the trim movement.
33The Center hydraulic system can be pressurized by a number of different pumps, including a Ram Air Turbine.
(H) Fuel
1If a crossfeed valve does not agree with its switch position, the switch VALVE light will illuminate and a corresponding EICAS advisory message of FWD FUEL X-FEED or AFT FUEL X-FEED is also displayed.
2With only battery power available when the APU is started, the ____________ is activated when the APU switch is selected to START.
3The center tank also has two AC electric pumps installed. These are designated as _____________________.
4A blank indication for any tank and in the totalizer indicates no power or a failure of the quantity sensing system.
5The center tank switches will be blank with the switches in the ___ position.
6If AC power is on the aircraft, with all Fuel Pump switches OFF, will the DC pump operate when the APU is started or will an AC pump operate?
7Before engine start, with the center tank fuel pump switches selected on, the Center Tank Pump switches will show both the ON light with flow bar in view as well as the low PRESS light.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. True – the pumps are inhibited until the N2 reaches 50%.
8Can the Main Tanks be gravity filled over the wings?
9When center tank fuel is depleted, the center pump low PRESS lights __________.
10Condition: Aircraft is parked with normal electrical power and dispatch fuel has been loaded. The main tank fuel pump switches will show a low fuel pressure PRESS light in the lower half of the switches with the switches in the ___ position.
11The _____ main tank also has a DC electric-motor driven pump, which is used for the APU only.
12Is fuel truck suction a possible method of defueling the Center Tank?
13The output pressure of each Center tank pump______________________________________.
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. is approximately twice the output pressure of the main tank pumps
14Center tank pump operation is inhibited when the associated engine N2 RPM is less than ___.
15The DC pump in the left main tank can provide fuel to the APU.
16The engines ______ suction feed from the Center tank.
17One of the check valves in each main tank serves as a __________________ to allow fuel to be sucked out of the tanks by the engine-driven fuel pumps when AC power is not available for the electric motor-driven pumps.
18Is fuel truck suction a possible method of defueling the Main Tanks?
19If AC power is on the aircraft, which AC fuel pump will automatically operate when the APU is started?
20A small quantity of fuel remains in the center tank after illumination of the center fuel pump low pressure lights. A scavenge system will operate automatically to transfer any remaining center tank fuel to ____ . Fuel scavenge begins when the main tanks are approximately half empty.
21When total usable fuel in either the left or right main tank drops below approximately ______ , the FUEL CONFIG light illuminates and the LOW FUEL caution message is displayed.
22If any fuel tank overfills, will all fueling valves automatically close?
23When the fuel quantity in left and right main tanks differ by _________or center fuel pump switches are OFF with more than 500 kilograms in the center tank, the FUEL CONFIG light illuminates and the EICAS advisory message FUEL CONFIG is displayed.
24One AC pump in each main tank is capable of supplying adequate fuel pressure to ___ engine(s) for all thrust conditions.
25Total Fuel quantity is also provided to the FMC?
(I) Hydraulic
1The Center hydraulic system pumps consist of .
2The __ brakes receive pressure from the center hydraulic system.
3In AUTO position, when do the electric motor–driven demand pumps operate?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. When system pressure is low or when high system demand exists
4The center number one electric primary hydraulic pump is automatically isolated, if system quantity is sensed low, to provide hydraulic pressure to the reserve brakes and steering system.
5The left electric demand pump is inhibited on the ground during engine start when only one generator is operating.
6The engine pumps fail to the ____ condition.
7With AUTO selected, the ADP operates automatically upon failure of both left and right AC systems. In this situation, the ADP provides the pressure to operate the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) for continuous supply of electrical power to essential components.
8The electric motor pumps are considered the primary pumps for the Center system, while the ADP is considered the Demand pump.
9The engine-driven pumps are the pumps of the left and right hydraulic systems.
10The SYS PRESS light illuminates and the EICAS caution message L HYD SYS PRESS displays when the hydraulic system pressure is low.
11Landing gear retraction and flap extension/retraction times will be increased when the air–driven demand pump is inoperative.
12Low system pressure is indicated by the SYS PRESS light and the L HYD SYS PRESS caution message, on the EICAS Status page.
13Low fluid quantity will cause the reservoir ___ light to illuminate and a corresponding EICAS advisory message of L HYD QTY to be displayed.
14When the pump output pressure is low, an advisory message is displayed on EICAS.
15When the ADP is providing pressure to operate the HDG, the hydraulic fluid supply to the __ is reduced to maintain sufficient hydraulic pressure to the HDG.
16With the ADP switch in AUTO and air pressure available in the center pneumatic manifold, the Air Driven Pump operates ___ or when heavy load items are selected.
17What is the minimum airspeed for successful RAT operations?
18Which hydraulic system provides normal pressure to operate the landing gear?
19Elevator Feel and Stabilizer Trim are powered from which two hydraulic systems?
20Which hydraulic system provides the pressure to the normal brake system?
21The Yaw Dampers are powered from which two hydraulic systems?
22What is the backup source of pressure for the Center hydraulic system in the event both motor pumps are not powered?
23Which hydraulic system provides the pressure to the alternate brake system?
24Which hydraulic system provides normal pressure to operate the flaps and slats?
25Which center hydraulic pump is normally inhibited when only one electrical source of power is available?
26The center hydraulic system consists of .
27The C2 pump may be load shed automatically to reduce electrical loads.
28The RAT automatically deploys upon ___ failure to provide an emergency supply of center hydraulic system pressure to the flight controls.
29There are two ___ pumps in the center system.
30The RAT can only provide pressure to the ____ of the center system.
(J) Ice and Rain Protection
1Which probe is only heated when in flight?
2It is normal for the VALVE light to illuminate briefly when the wing anti-ice switch is pushed to ON.
3If the Engine Start Selector is in ____ when selecting engine anti-icing to ON, engine ignition is automatically activated to prevent flame out from ice ingestion.
4How is the engine spinner anti-iced?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. By a flexible rubber tip that sheds ice as it oscillates.
5A single switch controls wing anti-icing. When pushed to ON, the switch activates to provide air to both wing anti-icing ducts.
6If the anti-ice valve fails to open or close and disagrees with the switch position, a ________ light illuminates and an EICAS advisory message of L or R ENG ANTI-ICE is displayed.
7Which slats are anti-iced by the Wing Anti-ice system?
8Can Wing Anti-ice be operated on the ground?
9When landing with Wing Anti-ice ON, the air/ground relay will cause the valves to close as the airplane touches down. This normal action causes the ________ lights to illuminate since the valves are now in disagreement with the switch.
10The Wing Anti-ice valves are electrically controlled and _____________ operated.
11Corrections to the maximum EPR (N1) limit are made based upon the position of the wing _______________ position.
12The 767 is equipped with _____ speed windshield wipers.
13Corrections to the EPR (N1) limit with engine anti-ice selected on are made _____________.
14When Engine Anti-ice is ON, a TAI (Thermal Anti-Ice) annunciation appears above the ___ indicators.
15Engine Anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist.
16Which cockpit windows are anti-iced and anti-fogged?
17Electrical power to the probe heaters is applied ________________.
18A single switch controls wing anti-icing. When pushed to ON, the switch activates a valve in each wing anti-icing duct to open.
19The engine bleed air for engine anti-ice is tapped off __________ of the engine bleed valve.
20The engine ________________________ is used to determine the EPR (N1) correction.
21Pushing the engine anti-ice switches to ON energizes the electrically controlled _________ operated anti-ice valve to open. With the anti-ice valve open, engine bleed air from the low pressure compressor flows to the cowl leading edge.
22On engine start all of the probe heat lights extinguish, including the TAT probe light.
23Can Engine Anti-ice operate on the ground and in flight?
24With the window heat switches on and the _____________________, the system is operating and the temperature is automatically controlled.
25Which cockpit windows have only anti-fogging protection?
26What part of the engine is anti-iced?
(K) Indicating/Recording Systems
1Attitude comparison monitoring is _________ when both pilots select the EFI switches or the IRS switches to ALTN. A COMP flag warns of this situation.
2Does the operation of the Standby Flight Instruments require an operating Air Data Computer?
3A Standby Airspeed Indicator is connected directly to the right auxiliary pitot and the ______________________.
4Which of the following positions of the EHSI mode selector will cause the VOR to operate in the automatic tuning mode?
5The altitude (AL T) light illuminates when the airplane is within ___ feet of the MCP selected altitude and extinguishes at 300 feet from that altitude.
6At ______________________, are four windows, collectively referred to as Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA), used by the autothrottles and the autopilot/flight director system to indicate system modes of operation.
7Air data information to the VSI is normally derived from the respective left and right ADC. In addition, the VSIs require vertical acceleration inputs from the IRUs.
8The ADCs, besides receiving pneumatic inputs from the pitot and static systems, also receive inputs from the_______________________ and total air temperature probe.
9The Captain's flight instruments normally use the left ADC and the First Officers instruments use the right ADC.
10The Captains VSI normally receives IRU inputs from the _____ IRU and the F/Os VSI receives IRU inputs from the _____ IRU.
11Which switch on the Instrument Source Selector Panel can be used to select the Center IRU for heading and attitude signals to the First Officer's HSI and ADI.
12Selection to the center Symbol Generator can be made with the ___ switch on either Instrument Source Selector Panel.
13The opposite ADC can be used as an alternate source of air data information through the instrument source selector panel________ switch.
14The left Symbol Generator normally generates the Captains displays, and the right SG normally generates the First Officers displays. These displays appear on the ________________.
15The Standby Flight Display (ISFD) provides ILS information
16The _______ powers the Standby Attitude Indicator.
17The IRUs cross over to supply heading information to the opposite RDMI.
18The center IRU can be used as a backup unit and is selectable through either instrument source selector panel ________ switch.
19Each Mach/airspeed indicator displays airspeed, Mach and Vmo from the selected ADC.
20Is electrical power required to operate the Standby Altimeter (pneumatic)?
21Red WINDSHEAR annunciations in both EADIs are generated by the weather radar system indicating that windshear___________________________.
22The EADI pitch limit indicator, is displayed when the flaps are extended. It represents the _______________________will occur.
23Which of the following positions of the EHSI mode selector will cause the VOR to operate in the manual tuning mode?
24Dual ADF receivers with a single control panel are installed. The control panel is located ________________________.
25Are DME indications available on standby electrical power?
26When is the DME distance on the RDMI displayed with a preceding letter L?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. When the EHSI selector is in EXP or FULL ILS modes with a valid ILS/DME requency.
27When the VORs are tuned by the FMCs, the VOR panel FREQ windows display the _________________ frequencies.
28With the Heading Reference Switch in NORM the HSI compass rose is automatically referenced to magnetic north when between ________________ and 60 degrees south latitude and to true north above those latitudes.
29Concerning the Barometric Altimeters: The leftmost digital altitude window shows green below 10,000 ft. The window also contains a ____ that is displayed when the altitude displayed is below zero feet.
30The center ILS receiver is available to display for either pilot through the ___ switch on theInstrument Source Selector Panel.
31A difference of 3 degrees of pitch or roll between the Captain and First Officers attitude displays will cause a PITCH or ROLL annunciation on both EADIs. At the same time an EICAS caution message of ____________ will appear.
(L) Landing Gear
1It is ________ for the DOORS light to illuminate during normal gear extension.
2The normal transit time for the gear to retract is __________.
3The nose wheel steering system is powered by the _______________ system.
4A ________ light illuminates and an EICAS message of _____________ will occur on gear extension if any gear is not down and locked after the normal transition period.
5The ______________________ furnishes the hydraulic power for landing gear retraction and extension including the nose gear steering.
6Individual wheel brake temperature conditions are displayed on the Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS). Indicator in numbers range from 0-9. Parking brakes should not be set if the BTMS is _ or higher.
7The Reserve Brake System gets its hydraulic pressure from the ______________________ electric pump.
8Following alternate gear extension, the gear doors ___________ without center hydraulic pressure being available.
9The alternate brake system is powered by the _______________ system and its selection is automatic.
10The alternate landing gear extension system uses __________________ pump to trip the locking mechanism for each gear.
11For landing, the Auto brake system is activated when ________________________________ and the ___________________.
12The ________________________________ operate(s) two brake systems that, although separate, share the actual wheel brake components.
13There are several ways to disarm the auto brake system on landing. Among them are:
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. Advancing thrust levers, moving speed brake lever down, applying manual braking.
14Autobrake activation occurs during takeoff when the airplanes speed is greater than ________ and both thrust levers are retarded to idle.
15A minimum pavement width of ________ is required to make a 180-degree turn.
16Nose wheel steering is powered by the center hydraulic system. In the event of a center hydraulic system leak, a reserve brakes and steering system can power the nose wheel steering.
17If both the Normal and Alternate Brake Systems do not work, the Reserve Brake system cannot automatically take over the system.
18There are ____ deceleration rates that can be selected for landing and pilot-applied full braking is _______ than the maximum deceleration rate.
19If upon gear retraction, any landing gear door does not close, the EICAS message ____________ will appear along with a _____light.
20The normal brake system is powered by the _______________ system.
21The tiller can turn the nose wheel __________ by rotating the tiller 360 degrees in the desired direction.
22Speed transducers which send speed signals to the antiskid controller are installed _______________________.
23Air/ground sensing systems are operated on _______________________________.
24The parking brakes can be set with the ________________________________ brake system.
(M) Navigation
1Which key is used to remove messages or data from the scratchpad?
2If the IDENT page is not displayed when you begin the FMS preflight, which key will access an INDEX prompt to allow you to go to the IDENT page?
3Which key is called the "pilot friendly key"?
4If you level off at the MCP altitude before reaching the FMC Cruise Altitude, what happens?
5When VNAV is engaged, the IAS/MACH window is normally ______.
6Why should V speeds be entered on the Takeoff Ref Page after all other FMS entries are complete?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. Because the V speeds will be cleared if performance data is changed.
7Which IRU can only operate on DC power for 5 minutes?
8Where can the ADF bearing information be displayed?
9How is the display of weather radar turned ON/OFF on each pilot's EHSI?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. By the use of switches on the common Radar Control Panel.
10Selection of the EHSI mode selector to the MAP mode will put the respective VOR radio in the ______ tune mode.
11The Captain's RDMI normally receives heading signals from the Right IRU. How can the Captains' RDMI receive signals from the Center IRU?
12Where is the SAT and TAS displayed?
13Which of the tuning methods below are available on the B767 VOR radios?
14What is the maximum Radio Altitude at which you could expect to receive a GPWS alert?
15Which specific GPWS warning has priority over all other GPWS warnings?
16Where is the TAT displayed?
17The Center Symbol Generator displays the output signals from the Center ILS and Center Radio Altimeter. How can the pilot determine these ILS and RA components are functioning properly?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. Select the EFI switch to ALTN to display Center SG graphics.
18Which of the following EHSI modes allow the pilot to select the weather radar display on the EHSI?
19Which ADF radio operates on Standby power?
20What is an indication that the IRS is not aligned?
(N) Oxygen
1The Passenger Oxygen (PASS OXY) switch is deactivated with the freighter modification.
2How is the crew oxygen mask harness inflated?
3Can the crew oxygen system be tested without removing a mask from the container?
4What is the correct preflight position of the Normal/100% Selector on the crew oxygen masks?
5What action is required to keep the mask harness inflated?
6For the oxygen test, the Normal/100% selector is set to 100%.
7Where is the Pressure Indication display for the crew oxygen bottle?
8During a non-emergency oxygen test, the EMERGENCY/TEST selector should be set to EMERGENCY.
9In the freighter configuration, a portable oxygen cylinder assembly installed in the lavatory provides supplemental breathing when required.
10The oxygen system uses quick-donning masks and regulators located at each crew station.
11In the freighter configuration, flight crew, observer station and supernumerary masks and regulators are installed in oxygen mask panels near each seat.
12In the freighter configuration, supernumerary masks have no microphone hookup.
13During the oxygen test, the yellow cross should show momentarily in the flow indicator when the RESET/TEST switch is pushed and held.
(O) Pneumatic
1If a HP valve fails to correctly modulate HP engine bleed air pressure, overpressure of the associated engine bleed air system may result. To prevent this, the HP valve is automatically locked closed.
2When the engines are running which isolation valves are usually open?
3For a left, right or center duct leak, if the non-normal procedure is followed, the leak indications should extinguish when the sensors have cooled.
4APU bleed air is available in flight up to approximately feet.
5Two connectors are available on the ____ pneumatic duct to connect high pressure ground air sources directly to the bleed air ducts.
6The OVHT light illuminates and the EICAS advisory message L or R ENG BLD OVHT displays when the engine bleed air temperature is excessive.
7The bleed valves are controlled and operated.
8Will an Engine Bleed Air valve open when it is selected on but the engine is not running?
9APU bleed air is available on the ground and in flight.
10Immediately after engine start, before the air conditioning packs are selected to on, i.e. AUTO, the bleed air valve OFF lights remain illuminated until the air conditioning packs are switched to AUTO.
11The APU bleed air valve automatically closes after engine start when APU bleed air is no longer required.
(P) APU
1With a pack selector in AUTO, the pack is automatically controlled to provide the output temperature according to the cabin section/zone that is selected for the ___________________.
2When an APU fire or fault is sensed, an EICAS advisory message of APU FAULT is displayed and the APU_______________________________________.
3To protect the unit from thermal shock, the APU control system incorporates a time-delay feature permitting APU cooling before shutdown.
4Rotating the APU selector to START and then releasing the selector to ON, begins the automatic start sequence.
5If the APU bleed valve has been closed for a sufficient length of time when the selector is moved to OFF, the APU fuel valve and inlet door close and the APU shuts down without delay.
6If the selector is inadvertently moved to OFF, but the RUN light is still illuminated, momentarily moving the selector to START cancels the shutdown signal.
7On the ground, pushing the battery switch to OFF will ________________________________.
8APU start requires both the APU battery and the aircraft main battery.
9The _____ light may come on for any number of reasons that cause an APU shutdown, but it's also used to monitor APU fuel valve operation.
10An amber FAULT light on the APU control panel illuminates whenever a fault is sensed. In addition, an EICAS advisory message APU FAULT is displayed, and the APU shuts down immediately. Fault detection circuitry is reset by positioning the APU selector to OFF.
11Electrical power is available up to the airplanes ___________ altitude.
12With the APU selector positioned to OFF, both the APU FAULT light and the associated APU FAULT EICAS message are inhibited. Only a failure of the APU fuel valve to close causes the APU FAULT light and the associated APU FUEL VAL message.
13The APU is a self-contained gas turbine engine located in the airplane tail cone.
14The APU FAULT light illuminates when the APU has automatically shut down or when the APU fuel valve disagrees with the commanded position.
15EGT indicates APU exhaust gas temperature displayed in degrees centigrade.
16The pack INOP light illuminates when _________________.
17When the APU RUN light illuminates, the APU may be used to supply electrical power and bleed air.
18If the APU fuel valve does not reach its signaled position during APU start, the EICAS advisory message ____________ appears.
19The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts within a 60-minute period.
(Q) Engines
1Secondary engine indications appear on the ____ EICAS display.
2With the Standby Engine selector in AUTO, the standby engine indications automatically display when .
3The EPR (N1) limit may be set manually on the ____ control panel.
4The ____ control maximum thrust limits during reverser operation, regardless of thrust reverse lever position.
5What does the EICAS advisory message IDLE DISAGREE indicate?
6What is the normal N2 range for starter re-engagement?
7A maximum start limit line (red) is displayed on the EGT indication when the fuel control switch is moved to CUT OFF.
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. True
В PDF отсутствуют буквы вариантов; они восстановлены по порядку строк. Ответ A взят из таблицы: выделение находится на тексте вопроса.
Источник: PDF, стр. 338 ↗8How many engine idle speeds are available on GE engines?
9What are the two idle speeds on GE engines?
10Each GE engine has a _____ actuated fan air thrust reverser.
11The ENG VALVE and SPAR VALVE lights illuminate momentarily as the valves open or close.
12When is minimum idle normally selected on GE engines?
Ответ по ключу базы
- B. During ground operation and all phases of flight except approach and landing
13At ___ approximately 50%, the engine start selector snaps back to the AUTO position with an audible click and the start valve closes.
14Oil pressure, temperature, and quantity are displayed on ___ the engine display.
15The primary engine indications appear on the ___ EICAS display.
16When is approach idle selected on GE engines?
Ответ по ключу базы
- A. When higher idle is required for proper system operation