Руководство по летной эксплуатации ВС Airbus 330 (AFM/FCOM): вопросы и ответы
Системы Airbus A330: электроснабжение, топливо, гидравлика, управление полётом, двигатели, APU и другие подразделы AFM/FCOM.
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(A) Aircraft General
1What is the wing span of A330-300?
2What is the A330-300 landing gear base (main to main)?
3What is the base between nose and main landing gear of A330-300?
4What is the aircraft length of A330-300?
5What is the minimum turning width for 180 degrees turn?
6What is the tail strike clearance with Roll 0 and shock absorber fully compressed?
7What is the tail strike clearance with Roll 0 and shock absorber fully extended?
(B) Air conditioning/Pressurization/Ventilation
1What does the Pack Bay Ventilation Turbofan do?
- A. Ventilates the pack bay when the aircraft is on the ground
2The A330 Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) automatically opens both outflow valves and depressurizes the aircraft in case residual pressure is sensed when the aircraft is on the ground.
3The Safety valves also provide negative relief if the cabin pressure is 0.73 psi below the external ambient pressure.
4Maximum differential pressure limiter function prevents over-pressurization of the A330 airframe if the differential pressure is above 8.70 PSI.
5What provides overpressure protection?
- C. The three safety valves installed on the rear pressure bulkhead
6What are the three pressurization system modes?
7In Automatic mode, when is the pilot required to manually enter the landing field elevation using the LDG ELEV selector?
8Which valves can be manually controlled by the flight crew using the A330 Cabin Pressure Control Panel?
9Cabin pressurization parameters are monitored on the ECAM. Which combination of ECAM pages displays this information?
10The Cabin Temperature selector on the A330 Air Conditioning Control Panel adjusts air temperature distributed to?
- B. Forward, Mid and Aft Cabin with Forward Attendant Panel control of +/- 3 degrees Celsius
11The position of the A330 Avionics VENT EXTRACT valve is shown ____.
12When is the CAB FANS pushbutton normally pressed in the OFF position?
13The A330 ECAM Conditioning Page shows all of the following EXCEPT?
14When the A330 Ventilation EXTRACT Pushbutton Switch is set to AUTO ____.
- B. Avionics Overboard and Under floor valves are automatically controlled
15Which of the following is NOT part of the A330 Ventilation System?
16On the VENTILATION panel, what does the amber FAULT light on the EXTRACT pushbutton indicate?
- D. Automatically, when the ventilation controller detects a low flow.
17The A330 lavatory and galley are ventilated _____.
18What is/are the indication(s) that the Extraction fan pressure switch senses low cooling capacity?
- D. An ECAM caution message EXTRACT FAULT is displayed and, f on the ground, the external horn will sound.
19The A330 Avionics ventilation is controlled by ____.
- C. The A330 Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC) and A330 Ventilation Controller (VC)
20What will cause the amber FAULT light to illuminate on the AFT ISOL VALVE pushbutton ____.
- B. An isolation valve disagrees with the commanded position.
21When the “FAULT” light in the A330 Ventilation EXTRACT Pushbutton Switch illuminates the operator should press the OVRD position of the button to ______.
22Which of the following does NOT provide control over the A330 Air Conditioning System?
23What is the A330 maximum negative differential cabin pressure?
24What is the A330 maximum positive differential cabin pressure?
25Which of the following cargo compartments is equipped with both a heating and a cooling system?
(C) Auto Flight
1In the event of an FMGEC 1 failure, how does the flight crew restore normal MCDU operation____.
2Which systems provide data to the FMGS to compute the aircraft position?
3When A/THR is active, the thrust levers remain stationary?
4The FMGES provides both "Managed" and "Selected" guidance. Which of the following is NOT a parameter associated with "Selected" guidance inputs on the FCU?
5Each Flight Management Guidance and Envelope Computer (FMGEC) is divided into main parts. Which of the following is NOT a main part of the FMGEC?
6Where are the red "Instinctive Disconnect" pushbuttons located in the cockpit?
7During takeoff, moving the thrust levers to the FLX or TOGA detent ARMS the Autothrust (A/THR). When does the A/THR become ACTIVE?
- B. When the thrust levers are set between the IDLE and CL detent (or MCT in engine-out condition).
8What is the consequence of pressing and holding the A/THR Instinctive Disconnect pushbutton on the thrust levers for more than 15 seconds?
- A. Autothrust operation will be inhibited for the rest of the flight.
9When the Autopilot is disconnected _______.
10Which of the following is NOT a recognized FMGES mode of operation?
11In the event of a dual FMGEC failure, how does the flight crew recover the navigation function?
12The FMGES reverts to Independent Mode due to a crosstalk bus failure. How is the flight crew alerted to this specific mode?
13When no Autopilots and no Flight Directors are engaged, the autothrust is controlled by FMGC?
14What is the function of the ALT pushbutton on the Flight Control Unit (FCU)?
- C. Commands an immediate level off during climb or descent
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Источник: PDF, стр. 95 ↗15The Flight Management Guidance and Envelope System (FMGES) architecture consists of several main components. Which of the following lists the correct quantities for the A330?
- D. 2 Flight Management Guidance and envelope Computers, 3 Multipurpose Control and Display Units (MCDUs), 1 Flight Control Unit (FCU), and 1 Flight Management selection device
16When is the FMGC navigation database updated?
17Which part of the Flight Management Guidance and Envelope Computer (FMGEC) is responsible for the Windshear Detection function?
18Both autopilots can never be engaged at the same time.
(D) Communication
1On the overhead EVAC panel, what is the normal position of the CAPT & PURS/CAPT sw?
2From which locations can the Emergency Evacuation System be activated?
- D. The Overhead Panel in the flight deck, on the forward attendant panel and the aft attendant panel
3What are the indications when the guarded COMMAND pushbutton on the overhead EVAC panel is pressed?
- D. The red EVAC light flashes, EVAC lights flash at all F/A panels and an Evacuation tone sounds in the cabin
4When the flight crew presses the guarded EMER pushbutton on the CALLS panel, what are the indications in the cabin?
- C. A RED light illuminates at each call area, a High-Low chime sounds three times and CALL PRIO CAPT displays on al AIPs
5Which communication component allows the flight crew to select a radio transceiver and tune it to the desired frequency?
6Which communication component allows the flight crew to select a radio for transmission and reception, and to adjust the audio volume?
7Where can the flight crew engage the interphone or use the Push-To-Talk (PTT) feature?
8In normal operation, which radio transceivers are dedicated to be tuned by RMP 1?
9If Audio Control Panel (ACP) 2 fails, how can the flight crew restore audio communication?
- B. The audio switching panel will allow ACP 3 to fill in for a failed ACP
10The Radio Management Panel SEL Indicator illuminates amber when that RMP is not controlling its normal transceiver.
11During normal operation, what type of signal(s) does the VHF 3 transceiver transmit and receive?
12How is the flight crew alerted of an incoming call from the ground mechanic?
- B. The COCKPIT CALL MECH light flashes amber and a buzzer sounds
13What condition triggers the "VHF EMITTING" or "HF EMITTING" amber caution on the ECAM?
(E) Electrical
1How are the aircraft batteries ventilated?
2When does the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) automatically deploy?
- A. If both engines have failed and both AC buses are depowered
3To prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism, the IDG disconnect pushbutton should NOT be pressed for more than?
4The A330 ECAM has separate pages for AC and DC power.
5The A330 EMER GEN is driven by a hydraulic motor that receives hydraulic power from the which aircraft hydraulic system.
6The A330 Electrical Panel has one battery voltage indicator and a toggle switch to show _______.
7What is powered by the emergency generator?
8What does the IDG Disconnect pushbutton do?
9Pressing the LAND RECOVERY pushbutton restores power to certain items needed for landing. Which of the following is NOT restored by the Land Recovery function?
10During an Emergency Electrical Configuration, which Radio Management Panel (RMP) remains available for communication?
11If the AC BUS 1 fails the AC ESS BUS is automatically powered by AC BUS 2. If this automatic transfer fails __________.
- A. The FAULT light on the AC ESS FEED pushbutton illuminates amber
12When two external power sources are connected EXT A and EXT B
13What is the only A330 -200 condition or operation that allows two power sources to be applied to the same AC Bus at the same time?
14When the emergency generator is powered by the RAT, it will automatically shut down when slats are extended. How do the batteries distribute power in this situation?
- A. The DC ESS BUS and the single-phase AC Inverter powers the AC ESS BUS
15When the emergency generator is powered by the RAT, it will automatically shut down when slats are extended.
16What is the purpose of the EXT B AUTO feature on the electrical panel?
- A. The APU and EXT B from supplying power at the same time.
17When the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) is pressurizing the GREEN hydraulic system and driving the Emergency Generator, which main electrical buses are powered?
18The AC ESS BUS is automatically backed-up by AC BUS 2. If the automatic transfer fails, what action must the flight crew take?
- A. Press the guarded AC ESS FEED (ALTN) pushbutton, where the amber FAULT light is illuminated
19What prevents the APU and EXT B from providing power at the same time?
20The IDG 1 and IDG 2 pushbuttons have amber FAULT lights. These illuminate for _______ but are inhibited ________.
- B. High oil temperature or low oil pressure / when low N2 RPM indicates the engine is shut down or shutting down.
(F) Equipment
1Which of the following items is NOT considered standard flight deck emergency equipment on the A330?A portable Halon fire extinguisher
- B. A Crash Axe
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Источник: PDF, стр. 103 ↗2The A330 Captain and First Officer foot warmers are controlled by switches on the Main Instrument Panel. Placing the switch ON warms the pedals to what temperature? None of these
3You want to open the passenger door. Whilst lifting the control handle the white light illuminates. What does it mean?
4Most Pushbuttons in the cockpit are color-coded and next colors are used to indicate the status of a system:
5When the passenger door arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door from the outside will:
(G) Fire Protection
1APU Fire Extinguishing is fully automatic.
2How is the fire extinguisher in a lavatory waste bin activated?
- B. Automatically, when the heat of a fire melts a fusible plug on the extinguisher bottle
3Which of the following is NOT an indication that the A330 Aft/Bulk Cargo smoke detector has activated?
4The A330 Cargo Fire Extinguishing system has two extinguishing agent bottles.
5When a fire is sensed, the A330 activates the CRC, generates an ECAM ENG FIRE message and . .
6If one smoke detector in the A330 Avionics Ventilation system fails the remaining detector can generate the RED ECAM message SMOKE AVNCS VENT SMOKE signal and________.
7The A330 Cargo Fire Extinguishing system has two extinguishing agent bottles. Their operation is described as_____________.
- B. Bottle 1 discharges rapidly, and Bottle 2 discharges slowly over a period of time to maintain concentration.
8If an APU fire is indicated what action(s) must be taken?
- C. Press the APU FIRE pb switch, then press the illuminated amber DISCH pushbutton switch.
9The In-Flight Entertainment Center (IFEC) includes smoke detection. What is/are the indication(s) that smoke has been detected?
- C. The SMOKE light in the switch illuminates and an ECAM Warning is displayed in the cockpit
10How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for the Engines and the APU?
(H) Flight Controls
1In the event of a total loss of all flight control computers (Mechanical Backup), which of the following flight control surfaces can still be mechanically operated by the flight crew?
2If the Flight Control Law reverts to Alternate Law 2 (ALT 2), the lateral control reverts to Roll Direct. Which of the following normal law protections are lost in this mode?
3When does the A330 transition from Flight mode to Flare mode while operating in Normal Law?
- D. The transition begins at 100 feet radio altitude (RA)
4In Alternate Law (ALT 1 or ALT 2), the normal High Angle of Attack (AOA) protection is lost and replaced by Low Speed Stability. When does this Low Speed Stability become active?
- C. 5 to 10 knots above the stall warning for each weight and configuration
5The Flight Control Laws on the A330 reconfigure when certain failures occur. Which of the following is NOT an A330 law?
6Which of the following is NOT a function of the Maneuver Load Alleviation (MLA)?
7Which of the following pilot inputs is NOT sent to the SECs?
8When does the A330 transition from Ground mode to Flight mode while operating in Normal Law?
- C. The transition is complete 10 seconds after the pitch attitude reaches more than 8 degrees
9Which of the following protections is NOT changed in Alternate Law?
10Normal Law operates in GROUND, FLIGHT and FLARE mode. Which protections remain fully active during the FLARE mode?
11When the flight control system degrades to Alternate Law 1 (ALT 1), amber crosses (X) replace certain protection symbols on the PFD speed scale. Which specific protection is limited or lost in this mode?
12The Flight Control Primary Computers (FCPC / PRIM) receive data from various aircraft systems. Which of the following is NOT a direct data input to the PRIMs?
13The A330 ECAM F/CTL page uses arrows to show computer progression if the currently controlling computer fails.
14In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control computers (Mechanical Backup), how does the aircraft dampen the Dutch Roll?
15The A330 wing features both inboard and outboard ailerons. How are these control surfaces represented on the ECAM F/CTL page?
- A. The positions of both the inboard and outboard ailerons are displayed separately for each wing
16Which specific components does the A330 Yaw Control system include?
- B. The Pedal Travel Limit Unit (PTLU) and the Backup YAW Damper Unit (BYDU)
17Under which of the following degraded flight control laws is the Autopilot completely unavailable?
18When does the FLARE Mode engage?
19In addition to the ailerons, which flight control surfaces provide roll rate augmentation?
- B. Spoiler panels 2 thru 6 provide roll rate augmentation
20If both engines fail in flight (All Engine Flameout), the A330 flight control system reverts to DIRECT Law.
21During manual flight in Normal Law, what is the maximum roll rate limit commanded by full sidestick deflection?
22Which flight control surface is operated by only ONE computer?
23Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the indications on the A330 ECAM F/CTL page?
- C. The PRIM (3) and SEC (2) flight control computers are indicated near the center of the display
24What is the correct configuration of the A330 Flight Control computers?
- D. Five computers; three primary (PRIM), two secondary (SEC)
25Above the IDLE position, the A330 thrust levers have specific detents used for autothrust operation and manual thrust rating limits. What are the three forward thrust detents?
(I) Fuel
1What is the primary function of the Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) on A330?
- A. Ventilates the Center fuel tank with oxygen-depleted air to prevent vapor ignition
2How is fuel normally supplied to the APU?
- B. Either from the FWD APU pump in the Engine 1 collector cell (left inner tank), or from the AFT APU pump in the trim pipe from the Trim tank.
3What is the standard fuel tank configuration for the A330-300?
4If both refuel couplings are used, how long should refuel at a nominal pressure of 50 PSI take?
5How many fuel pumps are installed in each inner wing tank, and how are they classified?
6The crossfeed valve is normally closed. When is it open?
- A. When the switch is placed to open and during an electrical emergency
7What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?
8What provides the fuel flow data displayed on the ECAM?
- B. The Fuel Flow Transmitter
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Источник: PDF, стр. 111 ↗9In addition to supplying the combustion chamber, what is the other primary function of the engine fuel flow?
- C. It cools both the engine oil and the IDG oil via heat exchangers.
(J) Hydraulic
1The BLUE Hydraulic System electric pump comes on automatically if the engine pump fails.
2Which Hydraulic System has three pumps?
3The Hydraulic System Monitoring Unit, or HSMU, among other functions, monitors and controls hydraulic pumps. Which of the following is not another HSMU function?
4The GREEN Hydraulic System contains ____ pumps.
- A. Two engine-driven pumps, an electric pump and a RAT pump
5The Nose Wheel Steering is electrically controlled by the Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU), and is powered by which hydraulic system?
6Which pump does NOT supply 3.000 Pounds per Square Inch?
7Which of the following is NOT a reason for the Engine FAULT light on the Hydraulic Panel to illuminates amber?
(K) Ice and Rain Protection
1When the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT switch is on which probes are heated?
2How long will the system operate if the WING ANTI-ICE Pushbutton is selected ON with aircraft on the ground?
3Probe Heat automatically starts heating when ice accretion is detected.
4The Wing Anti-Ice valves will close when electrical power is lost.
5During takeoff and initial climb, above what altitude will the Ice Detection System generate an ECAM alert (such as "ICE DETECTED" or "SEVERE ICE DETECTED") if ice accretion is sensed?
6The two independent Window Heat Computers heat ALL windows to a lower level on the ground and a higher level in flight.
7Which of the following is NOT one of the Windshield Wiper setting on the A330?
- A. INTERMITTENT
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Источник: PDF, стр. 113 ↗8What are the positions of the Wiper Switch?
9Wing anti-ice valve symbol displays amber if the associated valve is open and one or more of these conditions are true.
- C. The bleed air pressure is too high or too low, the wing anti-ice pb is OFF, or the valve is open for more than 35 seconds on the ground.
10When the A330 Wing Anti-Ice is on the ECAM BLEED Page displays what?
- C. ANTI-ICE displays on each side in white letters and the Wing Anti-Ice valves signal GREEN triangles when each of the four valves is open
11When the A330 Ice Detection System detects ice accretion_____.
- C. It generates E/WD and ECAM messages to alert the crew
12The wing anti-ice valves are electrically controlled by the WING ANTI ICE Pushbutton. What provides power for the valve to move when the pushbutton is pressed?
13What do the three independent Probe Heat Computers (PHCs) do?
- A. Automatically control and monitor: the Captain probes, the F/O probes, and the STBY probes
14What are the indications that the WING ANTI ICE Pushbutton has been pressed?
- B. The blue ON light in the pb illuminates and a green WING A. ICE memo display on the E/WD
15If the A330 is equipped with the Ice Detection System; where are the A330 ice detector probes?
(L) Indicating/Recording Systems
1During an ILS approach, at what altitude does the Rising Runway symbol begin to move up from the bottom of the PFD pitch scale?
2What happens automatically if the Upper ECAM Display Unit (DU) fails?The Engine/Warning Display (E/WD) is lost and must be manually transferred to a Navigation Display (ND).
- C. The flight crew must manually select the ECAM/ND switching selector.
3The EFIS Mode Select Switch has five positions. Which of these will cause a compass rose display?
4What normally supplies the First Officer's PFD and ND signals?
5What indicates the managed speed range on the PFD?
6Which of the following engine parameters is NOT displayed on the upper ECAM Engine/Warning Display (E/WD)?
7On aircraft equipped with the On-board Airport Navigation System (OANS), what new selection is added to the EFIS Control Panel Range Knob?
8The EFIS Range Selector allows selection of from 10 to 320 Nautical Miles. If the mode or range data fails, what is the default ND display?
9The A330 Mode Select Knob has an added position. What is it and what does it do?
- B. The ENG position was added. Pressing it displays Engine Standby Page on the ND
10Where is the A330 Cabin Vertical Speed displayed?
11The A330 ECAM CRUISE page displays all of the following parameters EXCEPT:
(M) Landing Gear
1When using the handwheels (tillers), what is the maximum Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) angle on the A330?
2According to limitations, what is the maximum brake temperature allowed for takeoff (assuming brake fans are OFF)?
3The A330 WHEEL page displays two triangles for each gear. Which computers provide the signals for these indications?
- A. LGCIU 1 signals the left triangles while LGCIU 2 signals the right
4How is the A330 Alternate Braking system powered?
- D. By the Blue hydraulic system, backed up by a single brake accumulator
5The gear position lights on the center instrument LANDING GEAR indicator panel are powered through LGCIU 1. What happens to this panel if LGCIU 1 fails?
6The Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) actuators are powered by the GREEN hydraulic system. Which computer electrically controls their servo valves?
7Up to what speed is Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) control effective from the handwheels (tillers) during the takeoff roll?
8The A330 features four specific braking modes. Which of the following is NOT one of those modes?
9Both aircraft landing gear systems use a safety valve to prevent improper gear operation. When does the A330 safety valve close?
(N) Lights
1What types of lighting are provided for the cockpit instrument panels?
2What can be adjusted for all panel lighting?
3Which lights provide illumination of work surfaces and side consoles?
4What happens to nose taxi/takeoff lights when landing gear is retracted?
5With the passenger signs switches (SEAT BELTS / NO SMOKING) set to the AUTO position, when do the signs automatically illuminate?
- A. When the landing gear is extended, or flaps/slats are extended (Flaps 1, 2, 3, or FULL)
(P) Navigation
1On the ADIRS control panel, when does the amber ON BAT light illuminate?
Ответ по ключу базы- A. At least one ADIRU is supplied by Batteries or for a few seconds at the beginning of a complete IRS alignment
2When the Thrust Levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGEC updates its position at takeoff using:
- C. The Navigation Database and the Takeoff Runway entered into the MCDU by the pilot
3Cost Index = 0 (zero) corresponds to:
4Аfter landing, you notice that there is a residual ground speed on both NDs. How do you correct this?
- C. It is possible to carry out a fast alignment (switching the 3 IR selectors OFF then ON within 5 seconds)
5What sources could be used by the FMGEC to compute its own radio position?
6At what height does the RA indication appear on PFD?
7If the flight crew presses the NAV pushbutton on the Radio Management Panel (RMP), can the RMP be used simultaneously with FMGC autotuning?
- B. No, activating RMP backup tuning overrides and inhibits the autotuning function of both FMGECs
8Why is it necessary to select the correct takeoff runway in the FMGEC during preflight preparation?
- C. It permits the FMGEC to accurately update its position to the runway threshold during the takeoff roll
9The intruders are classified as:
10Under normal conditions, when does the TCAS automatically revert to the "TA ONLY" mode, even if the TCAS mode selector is set to TA/RA?
11During cockpit preparation you need to check the altitude indications on the PFDs. The maximum difference between both PFDs is:
12For RVSM operation, check that the difference between each altitude indication displayed on PFDs (in the QNH reference) and the airport elevation is less than:
13Which system provides Attitude and Heading information to the TCAS computer?
14Which of the EGPWS basic modes can generate the severe aural "PULL UP" warning?
(Q) Surveillance
1At what radio altitude does the Predictive Windshear System (PWS) automatically begin scanning (assuming the PWS switch is in AUTO)?
- A. PWS operates when the PWS switch is in the AUTO position, and the aircraft radio height is below 2300 ft
2Which computer performs the Reactive Windshear detection on the A330?
3The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) provides three levels of alerts. What are they?
4During the takeoff roll, at what speed are Predictive Windshear (PWS) alerts inhibited?
5Which EGPWS mode alerts the crew of a descent below the glideslope?
6Up to what maximum distance ahead of the aircraft does the Predictive Windshear System (PWS) scan?
7The GPWS aural alerts will sound regardless of the speaker volume setting.
8Weather Radar (WXR) and EGPWS Terrain (TERR) images cannot be displayed simultaneously on the same Navigation Display (ND).
9The EGPWS includes a Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) function. When is the TCF alerting operational?
- C. It is continuously active, providing a protective floor based on the aircraft's proximity to a database airport runway.
10When the TCAS mode is changed to "TA ONLY" (either manually by the crew or automatically by the system), what is the corresponding indication on the instruments?
11Which system provides Attitude and Heading to the TCAS computer?
12Which GPWS pushbutton illuminates amber (FAULT) if the TAD or TCF modes fail?
13Which ND modes can display the EGPWS terrain image?
14What are the immediate initial actions for a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) memory item (if AP/FD TCAS mode is not engaged)?
15What is the typical maximum surveillance range of the TCAS?
- A. 100 Nautical Miles and 9 900 feet above or below the aircraft
16The basic modes of the GPWS operate based on which information?
17Below what altitude is the AP/FD TCAS mode automatically inhibited?
18Which of these warnings has priority over TCAS?
19How many ATC Transponders are installed on the A330, and how do they operate?
20With the TCAS Traffic Selector set to "THRT", what is displayed on the ND?
- B. Proximate and Other traffic within ±2,700 feet and 6 NM
21What TCAS symbol is used to identify "Other Intruders"?
22TCAS traffic symbols can be displayed simultaneously with the Weather Radar image on the Navigation Display (ND).
23What data do the EGPWS enhanced functions (TAD/TCF) rely on?
24Which TCAS RA requires the shortest pilot response time (2.5 seconds)? Initial "Corrective" RA.
(R) Oxygen
1What provides the Crew Oxygen System?
2On the Ground CKPT OXY will display pressure over 600 Pounds per Square Inch in GREEN. What indication when pressure below 1,000 PSI ?
- A. An amber half frame should prompt the crew to check Limitations and MEL to determine dispatch pressure
3What is the ECAM indication that the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton has not been turned on?
4When activated the PSU oxygen generators______
- D. Provide pure oxygen for about 15 minutes and cannot be shutoff once started
(S) Pneumatic
1When the X-BLEED selector is in AUTO, the crossbleed valve operates in accordance with:
2The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) provide control logic for:
3If APU bleed is used for a high-performance takeoff, what happens in the pneumatic system?
- A. The APU supplies the packs and the engine bleed valves automatically close.
(T) Water/Waste
1What prevents air flow to the sinks unless they are being drained?
2There is a manual shut off valve in each lavatory for the washbasin and toilet.
3Where are the potable water and waste tank quantity indications displayed?
4How is the potable water system pressurized in flight?
5To which components does the Vacuum System Controller (VSC) transmit information?
- A. The Forward Attendant Panel (FAP) and the Centralized Fault Display System (CFDS)
6What provides water heating?
- B. Electrically powered water heaters uder each washbasin
7What provides the force to drain wastewater from the sinks and galleys?
- B. Cabin differential pressure when the aircraft is in flight
8Toilet flushing is provided by negative pressure in the waste tanks. What controls this system?
(U) APU
1After 3 consecutive APU start attempts, what is the required cooldown period?
2What is the maximum APU EGT for continuous running?
3Which component supplies air to the APU bleed system?
4What is the maximum APU generator load limit in flight, if APU bleed air is not used?
5When does the APU exhaust door close?
6What is the APU operational altitude ceiling when using Jet B or JP4 fuel?
7From where can an external APU emergency shutdown be performed?
- C. Both the External Power Panel and the Refuel/Defuel Panel
8What is the maximum EGT during an APU start?
(V) Doors
1Which cargo compartment(s) door(s) need hydraulic power for operation?
2What is the purpose of the white "SLIDE ARMED" indicator on the passenger door?
- B. It warns ground personnel that the slide is armed if the outside handle is manipulated
3What indicates the presence of residual cabin pressure near the passenger door window?
4What secures the ladder assembly prior to deployment?
5What is the first action to reach the avionics bay hatch from the flight deck?
- C. Move the captain seat fully forward and descend through the floor hatch
(W) Engines
1What is the primary thrust reference parameter displayed on the ECAM Engine/Warning Display with RR Trent 700 engines?
2EGT and RPM red exceedance marks remain displayed on the ECAM until the next engine start sequence on the ground or a maintenance action.
3What idle modes are automatically controlled by the FADEC when the thrust levers are in the IDLE detent?
4When will the FADEC allow full reverse thrust?
5When anti-ice is ON, the idle thrust is automatically increased. How does this affect aircraft performance during descent?
6On the ECAM N1 or EPR indicator, what does the red line represent?
7When is the amber EGT Max line temporarily removed from the display?
8Which engine rotor is directly connected to, and drives, the engine accessory gearbox?
9The EPR indicator also displays a blue circle that represents the thrust lever position.
10What factors are monitored and adjusted during Modulated Idle?
11During an automatic engine start sequence, which parameters does the FADEC monitor?
12Which rotating assembly produces the majority of the engine thrust?
13If the FADEC automatically reverts from EPR to "Unrated N1 Mode" due to sensor failures, what function is lost?
14Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is defined as the ratio of which two pressures?
15How and when does "AVAIL" display in the EPR indication after an engine start?
- D. A green display after a successful engine start on the ground and a pulsing green display after a successful restart in flight

